Is this possible...

pooffck · Apr 28, 2012

I have a table with several rows, one each for every record in a recordset, each row has an imagebutton, each imagebutton is bound to a single event handler that gets passed the identifier of the record in its row. if I do this(after setting custom commandname and commandarg): imagebutton.Command+= new System.Web.UI.WebControls.CommandEventHandler(myev enthandler); myeventhandler fires. No surprises here, everthing works as advertised, event fires, commandargument is passed. ---------------------------------------------------- In another part of my page (on PageLoad): I Response.Write a javascript function who's purpose is to update a value in another window(the opener) wth the opener.forms[0].myfield.value="blah" if I do this: imagebutton.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "javascript:myfunction()"); the javascript fires correctly (assuming I use a literal value for "blah"). Again, no surprises, works as advertised ho hum. ---------------------------------------------------- The Problem: I need to somehow pass the command argument to the javascript and cause it to fire. The Ideal solution would be to have the event fire, thereby writing the javascript (using the command argument in place of "blah") and then somehow getting the javascript to fire. So far, I have not been able to make this work. It seems to be a chicken/egg problem.

Is this possible...

pooffck

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